The correct answer is 1. Hamlet’s emotion is not adequately objectified, and here’s the reasoning:
This question refers to T.S. Eliot's famous critique of Shakespeare's Hamlet in his essay "Hamlet and His Problems" (1919). In this essay, Eliot argues that Hamlet is an "artistic failure" because the emotions that Shakespeare aims to convey are not properly objectified through the play’s events, characters, or situations.
Eliot's Concept of the Objective Correlative:
Eliot introduces the idea of the "objective correlative", which is a literary theory suggesting that for an emotion to be effectively conveyed, it must be represented by a set of objects, situations, or events that evoke that emotion in the audience. In Eliot’s view, Hamlet lacks this objective correlative.
Why is this relevant to Hamlet?
Eliot believes that the emotions Hamlet experiences (such as grief, rage, and despair) are too vague, excessive, or disproportionate to the events that occur within the play.
Shakespeare, according to Eliot, failed to provide external actions or situations that appropriately express Hamlet’s internal turmoil.
Thus, statement 1 is the correct answer, as it captures Eliot's key critique: Hamlet’s emotions are not adequately objectified in the dramatic action, leading to what Eliot calls an "artistic failure".
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